Lionroot, you make an outstanding point [of which I feel 100% as such] and I believe you hit exactly on the intent of the law, when you said:
This seperation, as with all the Bill or Rights, was designed to protect the citizens from the government.
In many of the old countries [England and some European countries], many Christians were being persecuted for not following the "state" religion or official national religion, etc. In the Church of England [more like a church-state], for example, there was a great deal of corruption and doctrine radically different from that of the Bible. Hundreds were put to death.
The intent of the law was clearly that of protecting the government from infringing upon religion, not religion from infringing the state. "Seperation of church and state" does not mean separation of church
from state. Reading Romans 13, I feel certain that a Christian is obligated to vote as part of god-honoring "of those who have rule over us."
I was told once that Christians shouldn't vote, since it should be separation of church and state, and I said...aren't you Irish? You know, I can remember when New York City prohibited Irish Catholics from voting....oh, and African-Americans couldn't vote either at one time, and then women had to fight for the right to vote. That should be sufficient evidence that no adult American citizen should be denied the right to vote [prisons excluded, since they are not allowed].